Prelims Daily Quest - 24 September 2024

1.Which of the following statements regarding India's defense exports and international humanitarian law (IHL) is correct?

A) India is a signatory to the Arms Trade Treaty (ATT), which obligates it to assess the compliance of importing countries with IHL before exporting arms.

B) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to review the compliance of IHL by countries to which India exports defense goods.

C) India’s domestic laws, such as the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, explicitly require the assessment of a country’s compliance with IHL before defense exports.

D) Common Article 1 of the Geneva Conventions imposes an obligation on all states, including India, not to supply weapons to countries that may use them to violate IHL.

Correct Answer: D) Common Article 1 of the Geneva Conventions imposes an obligation on all states, including India, not to supply weapons to countries that may use them to violate IHL.

Explanation:

• Option A is incorrect because India is not a signatory to the Arms Trade Treaty (ATT), which means it is not legally bound by its provisions. Consequently, India does not have an obligation to assess compliance with international humanitarian law (IHL) before exporting arms under the ATT.

• Option B is incorrect as the Supreme Court of India does not possess the authority to review the compliance of IHL by countries concerning defense exports. The Court dismissed the PIL on the grounds that foreign policy is not its domain, emphasizing that defense export decisions lie with the government.

• Option C is incorrect because India’s domestic laws, such as the Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful Activities) Act, do not explicitly require an assessment of a country’s IHL compliance prior to the export of defense goods. While these laws allow for regulations based on national security and international obligations, they do not mandate a specific review process related to IHL.

• Option D is correct because Common Article 1 of the Geneva Conventions obligates all states to “respect and ensure respect for” IHL. This creates a responsibility for states, including India, to refrain from supplying weapons to any country if there is a reasonable expectation that such weapons will be used to commit violations of IHL. This establishes a moral and legal imperative that should guide India's defense export policies, underscoring the need for responsible arms trading.

In summary, while India has domestic laws regarding defense exports, the existing framework does not require explicit IHL compliance assessments, which highlights a gap in India's approach to becoming a responsible defense-exporting nation.

2. Which of the following statements regarding Section 107 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, is/are correct?

1. Section 107 empowers courts to attach property during the investigation phase.

2. It mandates that properties identified as proceeds of crime must be disposed of only after the conclusion of a trial.

3. The BNSS provides clear guidelines for District Magistrates to identify claimants for the distribution of attached properties.

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A) 1 only

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. Section 107 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, allows police officers to apply for the attachment of properties during the investigation phase. This provision gives courts the authority to attach property that is believed to be derived from criminal activities before the conclusion of the investigation.

2. Statement 2: Incorrect. Unlike the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), which specifies that properties involved in money laundering shall be disposed of only after the conclusion of a trial, Section 107 of the BNSS does not have such a stipulation. It is silent on when the disposal of the attached property should occur, indicating that properties could potentially be disposed of before a trial concludes.

3. Statement 3: Incorrect. The BNSS does not provide clear guidelines for District Magistrates regarding the identification of claimants for the distribution of attached properties. While it requires the District Magistrate to distribute property within 60 days, it does not specify how claimants should be identified, which raises concerns about the fairness and legality of the process.

In summary, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the right answer.

3. The term _____ reveals details about the composition and depositional environment of a rock, helping geologists interpret ancient landscapes and climate conditions.

A) Petrology

B) Lithology

C) Stratigraphy

D) Geochemistry

Answer: B) Lithology

Explanation: Lithology is the study of the physical and chemical characteristics of rocks, which helps geologists understand their composition and the environments in which they were deposited. It provides insights into the ancient landscapes and climate conditions by analyzing rock types and their distribution.

4. Which archaeological technique is predominantly used to map and detect subsurface features, but struggles in conductive soils like dense clay and salt marshes?

A) Magnetometry

B) Ground-penetrating radar (GPR)

C) Excavation

D) Aerial photography

Answer: B) Ground-penetrating radar (GPR)

Explanation: Ground-penetrating radar is a non-invasive method that uses radar pulses to image the subsurface. However, it is less effective in conductive soils such as dense clay and salt marshes, where signal penetration and resolution are significantly reduced, making it challenging to detect buried features.

5. In archaeology, ________ ______ refers to determining the age of artefacts in relation to one another.

A) Relative dating

B) Absolute dating

C) Stratigraphic dating

D) Chronometric dating

Answer: A) Relative dating

Explanation: Relative dating is a method used in archaeology to establish the chronological order of artefacts or events based on their relationships to one another. It does not provide a specific age but instead indicates whether one item is older or younger than another.

6. What archaeological method measures how electrical currents interact with subsurface materials to locate and map buried structures?

A) Ground-penetrating radar

B) Electrical resistivity tomography

C) Seismic reflection

D) Magnetic susceptibility

Answer: B) Electrical resistivity tomography

Explanation: Electrical resistivity tomography is a geophysical method that measures the resistance of subsurface materials to electrical currents. By analyzing how these currents interact with different materials, archaeologists can locate and map buried structures, providing insights into historical human activities.

7. Which groundbreaking technology allows researchers to extract and sequence genetic material from ancient remains?

A) Radiocarbon dating

B) Ancient DNA (aDNA) analysis

C) Dendrochronology

D) Stable isotope analysis

Answer: B) Ancient DNA (aDNA) analysis

Explanation: Ancient DNA analysis is a cutting-edge technique that allows scientists to extract genetic material from archaeological specimens. This technology has significantly advanced the understanding of human evolution and ancient populations by enabling the sequencing of DNA from remains that are thousands of years old.

8. The Porgera Gold Mine is located in which country?

A) Australia

B) Papua New Guinea

C) South Africa

D) Canada

Answer: B) Papua New Guinea

Explanation:

The Porgera Gold Mine is located in the central highlands of Papua New Guinea (PNG). It is one of the world's largest gold mines and has been a significant source of gold since the early 1990s. Recently, the mine has been affected by tribal violence, resulting in its closure and at least 32 fatalities among local warriors. This situation underscores the ongoing challenges related to resource extraction and community conflicts in PNG.

9. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court judgment on child pornography:

1. The Supreme Court ruled that mere possession of child pornography does not attract criminal liability.

2. The court recommended amending the term "child pornography" to "Child Sexual Exploitative and Abuse Material" (CSEAM).

3. The judgment stated that viewing CSEAM is not equivalent to the actual act of child sexual abuse.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court held that viewing, downloading, storing, possessing, distributing, or displaying child pornography does attract criminal liability under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act and the Information Technology Act. The court ruled against the Madras High Court's decision, which suggested that mere possession was not an offense.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court recommended that Parliament amend the POCSO Act to replace the term "child pornography" with "Child Sexual Exploitative and Abuse Material" (CSEAM). The court argued that this terminology better reflects the nature of the crime, which involves the actual abuse of children rather than consensual acts.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The judgment stated that there is no difference between viewing CSEAM and the actual act of child sexual abuse, as both involve the exploitation and degradation of a child for the sexual gratification of the abuser.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, making the answer (b) 2 only.

10. Consider the following statements regarding amoebic meningoencephalitis:

1. It is primarily caused by the Naegleria fowleri amoeba.

2. The condition is typically diagnosed through imaging techniques such as CT scans and MRIs.

3. Prompt treatment involves the use of antifungal medications.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct. Amoebic meningoencephalitis is primarily caused by the Naegleria fowleri amoeba, which is often found in warm freshwater environments and can lead to a serious brain infection when it enters the body through the nose.

• Statement 2 is incorrect. The diagnosis of amoebic meningoencephalitis is typically confirmed through cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis rather than imaging techniques like CT scans or MRIs. While imaging may help assess brain swelling or damage, it does not definitively diagnose the infection.

• Statement 3 is incorrect. The treatment for amoebic meningoencephalitis usually involves the administration of a specific medication called miltefosine, which is effective against amoebic infections. Antifungal medications are not typically used in this context, as the infection is caused by an amoeba, not a fungus.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct, making the answer (a) 1 only.